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Oct 03, 202428 min read

  1. Mrs. Johnson, a 65-year-old woman, visits the clinic for a routine check-up. During the assessment, the nurse asks Mrs. Johnson about her nutritional habits. Mrs. Johnson mentions that she often skips meals and prefers eating processed foods. Upon further inquiry, the nurse finds out that Mrs. Johnson has lost 15 pounds in the last 6 months. Which statement by Mrs. Johnson indicates high nutritional risk?
  • “I eat fewer than two meals per day.”
  • “I eat few fruits, vegetables, or milk products.”
  • “I have an illness that made me change the kind of food I eat.”
  • “I take three or more different prescribed or over-the-counter drugs a day.”
  1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of heart failure. The nurse is monitoring the patient’s fluid balance closely. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Increased heart rate
  • Decreased urine output
  • Increased respiratory rate
  1. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient’s nutritional assessment. Which laboratory test provides an estimate of visceral protein stores?
  • Hemoglobin level
  • Total lymphocyte count
  • Serum albumin level
  • Urinary urea nitrogen level
  1. The nurse is assessing a patient’s nutritional status and wants to evaluate the state of nitrogen balance. Which laboratory test would be most appropriate?
  • Serum proteins
  • Urinary urea nitrogen
  • Urinary creatinine
  • Total lymphocyte count
  1. The nurse is assessing a patient’s nutritional status and wants to evaluate the total number of lymphocyte white blood cells. Which laboratory test should the nurse consider?
  • Hemoglobin level
  • Serum albumin level
  • Total lymphocyte count
  • Urinary urea nitrogen level
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary catheter. Which intervention is essential for maintaining catheter care?
  • Emptying the drainage bag once a day
  • Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tubing to irrigate it
  • Securing the catheter to the client’s leg with tape
  • Cleaning the perineal area with soap and water daily
  1. The nurse is assessing a client with urinary incontinence. Which intervention is appropriate to promote continence?
  • Restricting fluid intake to minimize urine production
  • Encouraging the client to hold urine for as long as possible
  • Teaching pelvic floor muscle exercises (Kegel exercises)
  • Administering an antidiuretic medication to decrease urine output
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which intervention is important for preventing the spread of infection?
  • Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids
  • Administering antibiotics as ordered
  • Providing perineal care after each voiding or bowel movement
  • Applying heat to the suprapubic area to relieve discomfort
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with urinary retention. Which intervention is appropriate to promote bladder emptying?
  • Encouraging the client to drink caffeinated beverages
  • Assisting the client to a sitting position on the bedside commode
  • Applying a cold pack to the lower abdomen
  • Administering a diuretic medication to increase urine production
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary diversion. Which intervention is important for stoma care?
  • Applying a sterile dressing over the stoma
  • Emptying the drainage bag when it is two-thirds full
  • Irrigating the stoma with normal saline solution
  • Cleansing the stoma with mild soap and water
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a surgical wound. Which intervention is essential for preventing surgical site infections?
  • Administering prophylactic antibiotics after surgery
  • Changing the wound dressing daily
  • Applying hydrogen peroxide to the wound
  • Using sterile gloves during wound care
  1. The nurse is assessing a client’s wound for signs of infection. Which finding is most indicative of an infected wound?
  • Redness and swelling at the wound site
  • Clear serous drainage from the wound
  • Presence of granulation tissue
  • Absence of pain at the wound site
  1. The nurse is providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. Which intervention is appropriate for promoting wound healing?
  • Applying a dry sterile dressing to the wound
  • Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide
  • Using a transparent film dressing over the wound
  • Packing the wound with wet-to-dry dressings
  1. The nurse is providing wound care for a client with a surgical incision. Which intervention is important for preventing dehiscence?
  • Applying adhesive strips across the incision
  • Leaving the incision exposed to air
  • Using sterile gloves during wound care
  • Administering pain medication as prescribed
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a wound that is healing by secondary intention. Which statement accurately describes the healing process?
  • The wound edges are brought together with sutures or staples.
  • Granulation tissue fills in the wound bed.
  • The wound heals quickly with minimal scarring.
  • The wound heals from the inside out.
  1. A 35-year-old male patient presents to the clinic complaining of feeling dizzy and lightheaded. Which vital sign should the nurse assess first?
  • Temperature
  • Pulse
  • Blood pressure
  • Respirations
  1. A patient’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. How would you classify this blood pressure reading?
  • Normal blood pressure
  • Prehypertension
  • Hypertension stage 1
  • Hypertension stage 2
  1. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit. Which method should the nurse use to assess the child’s temperature?
  • Oral
  • Axillary
  • Tympanic
  • Rectal
  1. A patient’s pulse rate is 110 beats per minute. How would you classify this pulse rate?
  • Bradycardia
  • Tachycardia
  • Normal
  • Irregular
  1. A patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. How would you classify this respiratory rate?
  • Bradypnea
  • Tachypnea
  • Normal
  • Apnea
  1. A 70-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which age-related change should the nurse consider when assessing the patient’s vital signs?
  • Increased core body temperature
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Decreased respiratory rate
  • Increased pulse rate
  1. A nurse is assessing a newborn infant’s vital signs. Which vital sign should the nurse expect to be significantly different from an adult’s vital sign?
  • Blood pressure
  • Respiratory rate
  • Temperature
  • Pulse rate
  1. A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 35 is admitted to the hospital. How should the nurse consider the patient’s BMI when assessing blood pressure?
  • BMI does not affect blood pressure
  • BMI may cause falsely elevated blood pressure readings
  • BMI may cause falsely low blood pressure readings
  • BMI may cause irregular blood pressure readings
  1. A patient with a history of anxiety disorder is admitted to the emergency department. When assessing the patient’s vital signs, which finding should the nurse anticipate?
  • Elevated body temperature
  • Bradycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Hypertension
  1. A patient with a spinal cord injury at the C4 level is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Which vital sign should the nurse pay particular attention to in this patient?
  • Blood pressure
  • Respiratory rate
  • Pulse rate
  • Temperature
  1. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. Which vital sign finding should the nurse prioritize in this patient?
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Pulse oximetry
  • Respiratory rate
  1. A patient presents to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which vital sign finding should the nurse consider as an early indicator of complications?
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Heart rate
  • Respiratory rate
  1. A patient with end-stage renal disease is undergoing hemodialysis. Which vital sign should the nurse closely monitor during the dialysis session?
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Heart rate
  • Respiratory rate
  1. A patient with a traumatic brain injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. Which vital sign finding should the nurse be most concerned about in this patient?
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Heart rate
  • Intracranial pressure
  1. A patient is receiving intravenous chemotherapy for cancer treatment. Which vital sign finding should the nurse closely monitor for potential complications?
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Heart rate
  • Respiratory rate
  1. A nursing student is studying for their upcoming licensure examination and comes across a question related to Republic Act No. 9173. They read the following: “According to Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific provision that guarantees the delivery of quality basic health services through an adequate nursing personnel system throughout the country?”
  • Section 2
  • Section 5
  • Section 7
  • Section 9
  1. A nurse is attending a seminar on the regulatory aspects of nursing practice. The speaker discusses the qualifications of the Chairperson and Members of the Board as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. The nurse is asked: “According to Section 4 of Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific qualification required for the Chairperson and Members of the Board regarding their education?”
  • Possession of a master’s degree in nursing
  • Completion of a doctoral degree in nursing
  • Completion of a bachelor’s degree in nursing
  • Possession of a medical degree
  1. A nursing student is preparing for their future career as a nurse and wants to understand the role of the Board of Nursing as outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. They come across the following question: “According to Republic Act No. 9173, what specific power does the Board of Nursing have in relation to nursing education?”
  • Conducting hearings and investigations for unethical conduct
  • Recognizing nursing specialty organizations
  • Ensuring quality nursing education by examining facilities
  • Conducting the licensure examination for nurses
  1. A nurse is reviewing their professional responsibilities and obligations as outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. They encounter the following question: “According to Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific provision regarding the Code of Ethics for nurses?”
  • Section 6
  • Section 8
  • Section 10
  • Section 12
  1. A nursing student is studying the requirements for admission to the licensure examination as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. They read the following question: “According to Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific qualification required for admission to the licensure examination?”
  • Completion of a master’s degree in nursing
  • Good moral character
  • Filipino citizenship
  • Completion of a doctoral degree in nursing
  1. A nursing student is reviewing the provisions of Republic Act No. 9173 and encounters the following question: “According to the Act, what is the specific requirement for the Chairperson and Members of the Board of Nursing in terms of continuous practice of the nursing profession?”
  • At least five years
  • At least seven years
  • At least ten years
  • At least twelve years
  1. A nursing student is studying the role of the Board of Nursing as outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. They come across the following question: “According to the Act, what specific power does the Board of Nursing have in relation to the licensure examination for nurses?”
  • Determining the passing score for the examination
  • Developing the content and format of the examination
  • Administering the examination to candidates
  • Evaluating the results and issuing the license
  1. A nurse is attending a professional development seminar on ethical conduct in nursing practice. The speaker discusses the disciplinary actions outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. The nurse is asked: “According to the Act, what specific action may lead to the removal or suspension of a nurse’s license?”
  • Violation of patient confidentiality
  • Failure to maintain continuing education requirements
  • Conviction of a criminal offense involving moral turpitude
  • Non-compliance with nursing practice standards
  1. A nursing student is reviewing the requirements for admission to the licensure examination as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. They read the following question: “According to the Act, what is the specific educational requirement for admission to the licensure examination?”
  • Completion of a bachelor’s degree in nursing
  • Completion of a master’s degree in nursing
  • Completion of a doctoral degree in nursing
  • Completion of a diploma program in nursing
  1. A nurse is researching the provisions related to the Code of Ethics for nurses as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. They encounter the following question: “According to the Act, what is the specific provision regarding the Code of Ethics for nurses?”
  • Section 6
  • Section 10
  • Section 14
  • Section 18

Scenario: You are a nursing instructor conducting a class on professional ethics for a group of nursing students. You want to assess their understanding of the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses. You decide to create a set of questions based on the provided PDF document.

  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the responsibility of a registered nurse when the preservation of health, prevention of illness, alleviation of suffering, and restoration of health are not possible?
  • Assisting towards a peaceful death
  • Promoting health and preventing illness
  • Preserving health at all costs
  • Alleviating suffering and restoring health
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do with personal information acquired in the process of giving nursing care?
  • Share it with other healthcare professionals
  • Hold it in strict confidence
  • Disclose it to the patient’s family
  • Use it for research purposes
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should register nurses consider when providing nursing care to patients?
  • Individuality and totality of patients
  • Cultural diversity and political status
  • Social and ecological aspects of illness
  • Physiological and psychological aspects of illness
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do in terms of patients’ rights?
  • Uphold the rights of individuals
  • Respect the cultural and values of patients
  • Provide a favorable environment for growth and development
  • Ensure patients’ records are available only to those involved in their care
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the responsibility of registered nurses in terms of documentation?
  • Accurate documentation is the hallmark of nursing accountability
  • Documentation should be shared with other healthcare providers
  • Documentation should be used for research purposes
  • Documentation should be held in strict confidence
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the role of registered nurses in relation to the growth and development of other registered nurses in their charge?
  • Providing mentorship and guidance
  • Ensuring compliance with regulatory standards
  • Facilitating professional programs for specialty certification
  • Creating a favorable work environment
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do when faced with conflicts between the cultural values of patients and the provision of nursing care?
  • Prioritize the welfare and safety of patients
  • Respect the cultural values of patients above all else
  • Seek guidance from healthcare administrators
  • Consult with other healthcare professionals
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do to ensure the quality of nursing care and practice?
  • Seek feedback from patients and families
  • Continuously update their knowledge and skills
  • Collaborate with interdisciplinary healthcare teams
  • Comply with regulatory standards and guidelines
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do to effectively render appropriate nursing services?
  • Collaborate with other healthcare professionals
  • Acquire and develop necessary competence
  • Advocate for improved healthcare policies
  • Foster a supportive work environment
  1. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the overarching principle that guides the ethical conduct of registered nurses?
  • Respect for individual autonomy
  • Commitment to social justice
  • Promotion of health and well-being
  • Preservation of human dignity
  1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s immune function. Which of the following terms refers to a substance that induces the production of antibodies?
  • Agglutination
  • Antibody
  • Antigen
  • Apoptosis
  1. A patient has been diagnosed with a condition that involves the attack of pathogens by T cells. Which immune response is this patient experiencing?
  • Cellular immune response
  • Humoral immune response
  • Phagocytic immune response
  • Complement immune response
  1. A nurse is teaching a patient about the function of memory cells in the immune system. Which of the following statements accurately describes memory cells?
  • Memory cells are responsible for recognizing antigens from previous exposure and mounting an immune response.
  • Memory cells are lymphocytes that lyse cells infected with a virus.
  • Memory cells decrease B-cell activity to a level compatible with life.
  • Memory cells are lymphocytes that defend against microorganisms and malignant cells.
  1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s immune function. Which of the following terms refers to the coating of antigen-antibody molecules with a sticky substance to facilitate phagocytosis?
  • Agglutination
  • Opsonization
  • Complement
  • Apoptosis
  1. A patient with a primary immune deficiency is experiencing a gradual deterioration of the immune system due to the aging process. What term is used to describe this phenomenon?
  • Agglutination
  • Immunosenescence
  • Immunoregulation
  • Interferons
  1. A nurse is caring for a patient with an immune system dysfunction. Which of the following terms refers to the study of diseases resulting from dysfunctions within the immune system?
  • Immunopathology
  • Immunoregulation
  • Immunosenescence
  • Interferons
  1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s immune function. Which of the following cells are important for producing a humoral immune response?
  • B cells
  • Cytotoxic T cells
  • Helper T cells
  • Natural killer (NK) cells
  1. A nurse is teaching a patient about the process of genetic engineering. Which of the following best describes genetic engineering?
  • A process that enables replacement of missing or defective genes
  • A process that activates other components of the immune system
  • A process that regulates or controls immune responses
  • A process that lyses cells infected with a virus
  1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s immune function. Which of the following terms refers to the specific area of an antigen that binds with an antibody combining site and determines the specificity of the antigen-antibody reaction?
  • Agglutination
  • Antibody
  • Antigenic determinant
  • Stem cells
  1. A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following cells are responsible for recognizing self-antigens and maintaining immune tolerance?
  • B cells
  • Natural killer (NK) cells
  • Suppressor T cells
  • Memory cells
  1. A 45-year-old female patient presents with recurrent respiratory infections, chronic diarrhea, and unexplained weight loss. She reports a history of autoimmune disorders in her family. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the patient has low levels of immunoglobulins. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Selective IgA deficiency
  • Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
  • DiGeorge syndrome
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
  1. A 32-year-old male patient presents with a localized skin rash that is red, itchy, and has raised bumps. The patient reports a history of allergies and has a family history of atopic dermatitis. After examination, the healthcare provider diagnoses the patient with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following immune mechanisms is primarily involved in the development of atopic dermatitis?
  • Type I hypersensitivity reaction
  • Type II hypersensitivity reaction
  • Type III hypersensitivity reaction
  • Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
  1. A 60-year-old male patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents with abdominal pain, jaundice, and ascites. Laboratory tests reveal decreased serum albumin levels and prolonged prothrombin time. The healthcare provider suspects liver cirrhosis. Which of the following immune mechanisms is involved in the pathogenesis of liver cirrhosis?
  • Autoimmune reaction
  • Immune complex deposition
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Alloimmunity
  1. A 25-year-old female patient presents with joint pain, swelling, morning stiffness, and fatigue. On physical examination, the healthcare provider observes swelling and tenderness in multiple joints, including the metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists. Laboratory tests reveal elevated rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  1. A neonate is born with recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, failure to thrive, and chronic diarrhea. Laboratory tests reveal low levels of immunoglobulins and absence of lymphoid tissue. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the neonate’s symptoms?
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
  • DiGeorge syndrome
  • Hyper IgM syndrome
  • Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
  1. A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of weakness on the right side of his body. He is unable to speak properly and has difficulty understanding speech. On examination, his face appears droopy on the right side and he has weakness in his right arm and leg. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Ischemic stroke
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Migraine with aura
  • Bell’s palsy
  1. A 65-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of progressively worsening memory loss, difficulty finding words, and getting lost in familiar places. She also experiences changes in mood and personality. On examination, she has impaired judgment, poor insight, and difficulty with problem-solving tasks. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Huntington’s disease
  1. A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. He is unresponsive with decerebrate posturing, dilated pupils, and absent corneal reflexes. His respiratory rate is slow and irregular. What is the most likely cause of his condition?
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Spinal cord injury
  • Ischemic stroke
  • Parkinson’s disease
  1. A 45-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of severe headache, blurred vision, and vomiting. On examination, her blood pressure is elevated, and she has papilledema on fundoscopic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Hypertensive crisis
  • Migraine headache
  • Acute angle-closure glaucoma
  • Increased intracranial pressure
  1. A 70-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive weakness and numbness in his legs. On examination, he has decreased sensation and proprioception in his lower extremities, absent deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Romberg test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Diabetic neuropathy
  • Guillain-Barré syndrome
  • Peripheral arterial disease
  • Spinal cord compression
  1. A 55-year-old female patient presents with recurrent upper respiratory infections, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. Laboratory tests reveal elevated sweat chloride levels. The patient’s medical history is significant for infertility. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Cystic fibrosis (CF)
  • Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
  • Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
  1. A 30-year-old male patient presents with recurrent bacterial skin infections, abscesses, and impaired wound healing. Laboratory tests reveal neutrophilia and a defective respiratory burst in phagocytic cells. The patient’s medical history is significant for recurrent infections since childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
  • Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
  • Hyper IgM syndrome
  • DiGeorge syndrome
  1. A 45-year-old female patient presents with joint pain, fever, and a rash on her cheeks and nose. Laboratory tests reveal elevated antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. The patient’s medical history is significant for photosensitivity and oral ulcers. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  1. A 25-year-old female patient presents with recurrent bacterial and fungal skin infections. Laboratory tests reveal normal immunoglobulin levels and lymphocyte count. The patient’s medical history is significant for a recent kidney transplant. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Immunosuppression due to transplant medications
  • Hyper IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)
  • DiGeorge syndrome
  • X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
  1. A 35-year-old male patient presents with recurrent respiratory infections, chronic diarrhea, and failure to thrive since childhood. Laboratory tests reveal low levels of immunoglobulins and absent lymphoid tissue. The patient’s medical history is significant for a history of multiple blood transfusions. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
  • Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
  • Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)
  1. A 50-year-old male patient presents with joint pain, fatigue, and dry eyes and mouth. Laboratory tests reveal elevated antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-SSA/Ro antibodies. The patient’s medical history is significant for chronic hepatitis C infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  • Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)
  1. A 30-year-old female patient presents with recurrent sinus and lung infections, chronic diarrhea, and unexplained weight loss. Laboratory tests reveal low levels of immunoglobulins and absent lymphoid tissue. The patient’s medical history is significant for a history of radiation therapy for Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
  • Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
  • Radiation-induced immunodeficiency
  1. A 40-year-old male patient presents with recurrent skin infections, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with abnormal lymphocyte morphology. The patient’s medical history is significant for a family history of similar symptoms. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
  • Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
  • Sezary syndrome
  • Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
  1. A 65-year-old patient presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain and stiffness in the hands and knees. The patient reports difficulty in performing daily activities such as buttoning clothes and walking. On examination, the nurse notes swelling and tenderness in multiple joints. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
  • Osteoporosis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Gout
  1. A 50-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with severe back pain. The pain started suddenly and is described as sharp and stabbing. The patient reports that the pain worsens with movement and is accompanied by numbness and weakness in the legs. On examination, the nurse notes decreased sensation and strength in the lower extremities. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Herniated intervertebral disc
  • Osteoporosis
  1. A 30-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain and swelling in the wrists, fingers, and knees. The patient reports morning stiffness that lasts for more than an hour. On examination, the nurse notes tender, warm, and swollen joints. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of rheumatoid factor and elevated C-reactive protein. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient?
  • Prescribe nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
  • Administer corticosteroid injections into affected joints
  • Refer the patient to physical therapy for exercises
  • Start disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
  1. A 60-year-old male patient with a history of osteoporosis is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a fragility fracture of the hip. The nurse is providing education to the patient about measures to prevent future fractures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
  • Perform weight-bearing exercises daily
  • Limit calcium intake to prevent kidney stones
  • Avoid exposure to sunlight to prevent skin cancer
  • Take bisphosphonate medication on an empty stomach
  1. A 45-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain, fatigue, and morning stiffness that lasts for more than an hour. The patient reports a family history of autoimmune diseases. On examination, the nurse notes tender, swollen joints and the presence of rheumatoid nodules. Laboratory tests reveal elevated rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  1. A 55-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain and stiffness in the hands, wrists, and knees. The patient reports morning stiffness that lasts for less than an hour. On examination, the nurse notes swelling and tenderness in the affected joints, as well as Heberden’s nodes in the distal interphalangeal joints. Laboratory tests reveal normal levels of rheumatoid factor. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Gout
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  1. A 35-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe joint pain, redness, and swelling in the big toe. The patient reports a history of similar episodes in the past. On examination, the nurse notes a hot, tender, and swollen joint. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum uric acid levels. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Gout
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  1. A 25-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with complaints of chronic back pain and stiffness that worsens with rest and improves with exercise. The patient reports a family history of similar symptoms. On examination, the nurse notes limited range of motion in the lumbar spine and tenderness in the sacroiliac joints. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of HLA-B27 antigen. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  1. A 65-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain and stiffness in his hands and knees. He reports that the pain is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day. On physical examination, there is tenderness and swelling in multiple joints. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Gout
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  1. A 40-year-old female presents with aching and stiffness in her lower back that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. She reports a history of alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. On physical examination, there is tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Fibromyalgia
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteoarthritis
  1. A 55-year-old male presents with sudden severe pain and swelling in his right big toe. He reports a history of similar episodes in the past. On physical examination, the affected joint is warm, red, and tender to touch. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated serum uric acid level. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Gout
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  1. A 30-year-old female presents with joint pain and swelling in her hands, along with morning stiffness that lasts for more than an hour. She also reports fatigue and occasional low-grade fever. On physical examination, there is synovitis in multiple joints, including the wrists and metacarpophalangeal joints. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Lupus erythematosus
  • Sjögren’s syndrome
  1. A 60-year-old male presents with joint pain and stiffness in his knees, hips, and hands. He reports that the pain worsens with activity and improves with rest. On physical examination, there is bony enlargement and crepitus in the affected joints. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Gout
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  1. A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and appears anxious. His blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Aortic dissection
  • Pericarditis
  1. A 35-year-old female presents with sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis. She recently underwent surgery and has been immobile for the past few days. On physical examination, there are signs of right heart strain, including a tachycardia and hypoxemia. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Aortic dissection
  • Pericarditis
  1. A 60-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe tearing or ripping chest pain that radiates to the back. He also reports a difference in blood pressure between his two arms. On physical examination, he has hypertension. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Aortic dissection
  • Pericarditis
  1. A 25-year-old female presents with sharp, pleuritic chest pain that is worse with inspiration. She reports a recent upper respiratory infection. On physical examination, there is a pericardial friction rub on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Aortic dissection
  • Pericarditis
  1. A 50-year-old male presents with severe chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and appears anxious. His blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and ECG shows diffuse ST-segment elevation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Aortic dissection
  • Pericarditis
  1. A 55-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe headache, dizziness, and blurred vision. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 220/120 mmHg, and there is a bruit heard over his carotid arteries. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Migraine
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Temporal arteritis
  • Hypertensive emergency
  1. A 30-year-old female presents with a sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the headache is the worst she has ever experienced. On physical examination, there are signs of meningeal irritation, including neck stiffness and a positive Kernig sign. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
  • Migraine
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Temporal arteritis
  • Hypertensive emergency
  1. Scenario: A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of itching and burning in her vaginal area. Upon examination, you notice a thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge. The patient reports that she has had similar symptoms in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Trichomoniasis
  • Vulvovaginal candidiasis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  1. Scenario: A 32-year-old sexually active female presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain, fever, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. She reports having multiple sexual partners and inconsistent use of barrier methods. On examination, there is tenderness upon palpation of the cervix. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Trichomoniasis
  • Vulvovaginal candidiasis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease

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